[CSP] Test PT19ST06 – Polity & Governance

#1. Which of the following statement about a bill initiating an amendment to the Constitution is correct?

(a) Its introduction requires prior permission of the President

(b) The President can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration only once

(c) It cannot be introduced by a private member

(d) It must be passed by both the House separately

#2. A judgment of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases was followed by the enactment of the 24th Amendment Act which empowered the Parliament to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights under Article 368 of the Constitution?

(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

(b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(d) Waman Rao v. Union of India

#3. Who of the following members of the First Cabinet of the independent India was not a member of the interim government constituted in 1946?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(c) Sardar Baldev Singh

(d) C. Rajagopalachari

#4. What is the correct order in which the following words appear in the Preamble to the Constitution?

1. LIBERTY

2. FRATERNITY

3. EQUALITY

4. JUSTICE

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 4-1-3-2

(d) 4-3-1-2

#5. Consider the following statements:

1. Rights under Article 26 are available to every religious denomination or its section.

2. Protection under Article 30 is available only to the religious minorities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

#6. Which of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935?

(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces

(b) A bicameral legislature

(c) Provincial autonomy

(d) An All-India Federation

#7. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can not be amended by the Parliament without the consent of the States?

1. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the States.

2. Fundamental Rights.

3. Election to the Parliament and the State legislatures.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

#8. Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties:

1. They are non-justiciable in nature.

2. They are enforceable by law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

#9. Which of the following rights are conferred upon the citizens by the Constitution itself?

1. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha.

2. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

#10. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties

(a) only with the consent of all the States

(b) only with the consent of majority of the States

(c) only with the consent of the States concerned

(d) without the consent of any State

#11. The provisions contained in the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India are related to

(a) Division of power between the Union and the States

(b) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

(c) Languages recognised by the Constitution

(d) Forms of oaths and affirmations for constitutional offices

#12. Which of the following can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right?

1. A custom having the force of law

2. An ordinance issued by the President

3. An order of the executive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

#13. Which of the following fundamental rights is/are available to both citizens and foreigners alike (except the enemy aliens)?

1. Right to protect language and script

2. Right to elementary education

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Equal protection of laws

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

#14. A bill to alter the boundary of a State can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the

(a) President

(b) State Legislature concerned

(c) Ministry of Home Affairs

(d) None of the above options is correct in this context

#15. What is the correct chronological order of the following events?

1. ‘Mysore’ was renamed as ‘Karnataka’.

2. Mizoram was granted full statehood.

3. Dadar and Nagar Haveli was converted into a Union Territory.

4. The State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 4-3-1-2

(c) 3-4-1-2

(d) 4-3-2-1

#16. The provisions that seek to achieve political equality among the citizens are contained in which part of the Constitution?

(a) Part XV

(b) Part XVIII

(c) Part V

(d) Part XIV

#17. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

#18. Consider the following statements:

1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’ adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

2. The Preamble has been amended only once till date.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

#19. The Constitution of India derives its authority from

(a) Parliament only

(b) Preamble only

(c) Parliament as well as the Preamble

(d) None of the above options is correct in this context

#20. Which of the following Acts was followed by the appointment of the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Services)?

(a) Charter Act of 1833

(b) Charter Act of 1853

(c) Government of India Act of 1858

(d) Indian Councils Act of 1861

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HINTS:

Ans 1: (d)

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the State legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private person and does not require prior permission of the President. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. After being duly passed by both the Houses and ratified by the State legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give his assent to the bill. The President can neither withhold assent nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

Ans 2: (b)

The Supreme Court held in the Golak Nath case that the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. The Parliament reacted to the Supreme Court’s judgment in the Golak Nath case by enacting the 24th Amendment Act (1971). This Act amended Article 13 and 368. IT declared that the Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights under Article 368 and such an act will not be a law under the meaning of Article 13.

Ans 3: (b)

Ans 4 : (c)

Ans 5: (a)

Protection under Article 30 is available to the religious as well as linguistic minorities.

Ans 6: (a)

Ans 7: (c)

1. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the States….Requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of the States 2. Fundamental Rights…….. Requires special majority of the Parliament 3. Election to the Parliament and the State legislatures……. Requires simple majority of the Parliament

Ans 8: (c)

Fundamental Duties are enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them.

Ans 9: (c)

Ans 10: (d)

Ans 11: (b)

Ans 12: (d)

The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:

(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;

(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;

(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and

(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.

Ans 13: (b)

Right to protection of language, script and culture of minorities is available only to the citizens.

Ans 14: (a)

Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:

(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;

(b) increase the area of any State;

(c) diminish the area of any State;

(d) alter the boundaries of any State; and

(e) alter the name of any State;

However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommendation of the bill, the President has to refer the same to the State legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The President (or the Parliament) is not bound by the vies of the State legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.

Ans 15: (c)

1. Mysore’ was renamed as ‘Karnataka’…………………………………………1973

2. Mizoram was granted full statehood………………………………………….1987

3. Dadar and Nagar Haveli was converted into a Union Territory………….1961

4. The State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana…………………….1966

Ans 16: (a)

There are two provisions in the Constitution that seek to achieve political equality. One, no person is to be declared ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls on ground of religion, race, caste, or sex (Article 325). Two, elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies to be on the basis of adult suffrage (Article 326). The Articles are contained in Part XV (Elections).

Ans 17: (d)

Ans 18: (c)

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’, drafted and moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words – socialist, secular and integrity.

Ans 19: (d)

The Preamble reveals the source of authority of the Constitution and states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Ans 20: (b)

Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The civil service was thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, Macaulay Committee was appointed in 1854.

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